Joel Uckelman on 16 Nov 2002 17:37:02 -0000 |
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Re: [eia] Movement Question |
Thus spake jjy@xxxxxxxxxxx: > In the March political phase, Spain said: > > "Spains offers GB, Austria, and Prussia access to move troops through Spain" > > So the question is, since Spain granted Austria access through what was at th > at > time all Spanish-controlled territory, does this carry over to the new piece > of > territory Spain has acquired since then ? Would anyone strongly object to th > is > interpretation ? > > Also, should a major power which gains new territories have the opportunity t > o > define the access to that territory _at the time it is acquired_, or does > bureaucratic red tape hold up this process until the next political phase. > > -JJY 10.3 doesn't seem to specify *when* access is granted, nor can I find it anywhere else. Have we been doing it in the Political Phase out of convenience? If not, I don't see the rule that limits access declarations to any particular phase. In that case, I think we should allow Spain the decision this time, and in future be more explicit when granting access. -- J. _______________________________________________ eia mailing list eia@xxxxxxxxx http://lists.ellipsis.cx/mailman/listinfo/eia