Re: [eia] Movement Question

["James Helle" <jhelle@xxxxxxxxxxxxxx>]

      But, if Spain defeats the forces that controlled the territory
previously then who is present to prevent passage?
----- Original Message -----
From: "Joel Uckelman" <uckelman@xxxxxxxxx>
To: <eia@xxxxxxxxx>
Sent: Saturday, November 16, 2002 9:36 AM
Subject: Re: [eia] Movement Question


> Thus spake jjy@xxxxxxxxxxx:
> > In the March political phase, Spain said:
> >
> > "Spains offers GB, Austria, and Prussia access to move troops through
Spain"
> >
> > So the question is, since Spain granted Austria access through what was
at th
> > at
> > time all Spanish-controlled territory, does this carry over to the new
piece
> > of
> > territory Spain has acquired since then ?  Would anyone strongly object
to th
> > is
> > interpretation ?
> >
> > Also, should a major power which gains new territories have the
opportunity t
> > o
> > define the access to that territory _at the time it is acquired_, or
does
> > bureaucratic red tape hold up this process until the next political
phase.
> >
> > -JJY
>
> 10.3 doesn't seem to specify *when* access is granted, nor can I find it
> anywhere else. Have we been doing it in the Political Phase out of
> convenience? If not, I don't see the rule that limits access declarations
> to any particular phase. In that case, I think we should allow Spain the
> decision this time, and in future be more explicit when granting access.
>
> --
> J.
>
>
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