Re: [eia] Movement Question

[jjy@xxxxxxxxxxx]

In the March political phase, Spain said:

"Spains offers GB, Austria, and Prussia access to move troops through Spain"

So the question is, since Spain granted Austria access through what was at that 
time all Spanish-controlled territory, does this carry over to the new piece of 
territory Spain has acquired since then ?  Would anyone strongly object to this 
interpretation ?

Also, should a major power which gains new territories have the opportunity to 
define the access to that territory _at the time it is acquired_, or does 
bureaucratic red tape hold up this process until the next political phase.

-JJY
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