Re: [eia] Movement Question

["Kyle H" <menexenus@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx>]

    As long as we are all in agreement that voluntary access agreements can
be made on the fly from now on, I have no objection to an on-the-fly
agreement.

kdh

----- Original Message -----
From: "James Helle" <jhelle@xxxxxxxxxxxxxx>
To: <eia@xxxxxxxxx>
Sent: Saturday, November 16, 2002 8:48 PM
Subject: Re: [eia] Movement Question


>       But, if Spain defeats the forces that controlled the territory
> previously then who is present to prevent passage?
> ----- Original Message -----
> From: "Joel Uckelman" <uckelman@xxxxxxxxx>
> To: <eia@xxxxxxxxx>
> Sent: Saturday, November 16, 2002 9:36 AM
> Subject: Re: [eia] Movement Question
>
>
> > Thus spake jjy@xxxxxxxxxxx:
> > > In the March political phase, Spain said:
> > >
> > > "Spains offers GB, Austria, and Prussia access to move troops through
> Spain"
> > >
> > > So the question is, since Spain granted Austria access through what
was
> at th
> > > at
> > > time all Spanish-controlled territory, does this carry over to the new
> piece
> > > of
> > > territory Spain has acquired since then ?  Would anyone strongly
object
> to th
> > > is
> > > interpretation ?
> > >
> > > Also, should a major power which gains new territories have the
> opportunity t
> > > o
> > > define the access to that territory _at the time it is acquired_, or
> does
> > > bureaucratic red tape hold up this process until the next political
> phase.
> > >
> > > -JJY
> >
> > 10.3 doesn't seem to specify *when* access is granted, nor can I find it
> > anywhere else. Have we been doing it in the Political Phase out of
> > convenience? If not, I don't see the rule that limits access
declarations
> > to any particular phase. In that case, I think we should allow Spain the
> > decision this time, and in future be more explicit when granting access.
> >
> > --
> > J.
> >
> >
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> >
>
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