Re: [eia] question about trade

["J.J. Young" <jjy@xxxxxxxxxxx>]

OK.  The only thing I wasn't clear about is whether the "ban" still exists once it has been broken once.  After all, Spain can now declare war on France at any time, whether they choose to abide by the ban in the future or not.  So is the ban null and void after being violated ?  If the majority has already decided that it is _not_ null and void, then I have no other questions.

 

-JJY

----- Original Message -----

From: Kyle H

To: eia@xxxxxxxxx

Sent: Monday, April 07, 2003 3:45 PM

Subject: Re: [eia] question about trade

    I thought we had already addressed this question.  I agreed (just out of common sense) that Britain should not have to roll for the War of 1812 during those economic phases in which France violates the ban against trading with America.  However, Britain should make a roll during those Economic Phases in which France agrees to abide by the ban.

    That was the view I put forward before, and I don't think there was any dissent.  Is there any dissent now?

 

kdh

----- Original Message -----

From: J.J. Young

To: eia@xxxxxxxxx

Sent: Monday, April 07, 2003 12:38 PM

Subject: [eia] question about trade

Hi, guys.  I was going back through the emails about the last economic phase, and I noticed that France did American trade despite of peace condition B.6.  Would this still trigger the roll for a British roll with America ?  That doesn't make much sense to me, since the trade with America was not actually blocked, but took place anyway.  The wording of 12.9 seems unclear, but this is what common sense tells me.  What do the rest of you think ?

 

-JJY