Re: [eia] a question about trade

[Michael Gorman <mpgorman@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx>]

At 09:06 AM 3/21/2004 -0500, you wrote:
> After your second email, Mike, I'm not sure which side of the argument you
> agree with.  Spain did have condition B.6. imposed on it by France.  But my
> assertion is that B.6. is not the reason for the lack of trade with America
> in this case, and so 12.9 does not kick in.
>
> I see a country's submission to B.6., that is, the turning away of American
> shipping, as an act of government, just like the act of imposing tariffs and
> duties to collect income from trade.  When a country's capital is occupied,
> it loses the ability to make those kinds of actions.  The government's
> policy, whether of collecting money from trade or of turning trade away in
> accordance with B.6., cannot be enforced while the capital is occupied.
>
> So in other words, I don't picture the trading ports as being empty when the
> capital is occupied.  On the contrary, the merchantmen are whooping it up
> and trading like mad, because there are no officials coming around to
> collect the government's share.
>
> -JJY

Occupying the capital does not cause civil disorder.

The central government cannot make effective use of income but the local 
officials are all still there and Spain is in control of its ports. 
Collected taxes might get lost somewhere in the system of local officials 
but society does not fold up and go home because the capital is 
occupied.  In your situation Britain should get trade income from all the 
Spanish ports since anyone can trade with them now and that clearly is not 
the case.

So I would say that occupying a capital does not constitute denial of 
trade.  Occupying a capital also does not waive condition B.6 which can 
exist independently of that situation.  I had forgotten B.6 was an issue in 
this situation but if it is, then it is still illegal for America to trade 
with Spain and that will continue to annoy Americans.  So Britain would 
still have to roll for war with America.

There is a clear line in the game when a national government collapses and 
Spain is no where near that line.  So it does not seem reasonable to me to 
now assume that the Spanish government doesn't exist within territory it 
still controls.

Mike


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