Re: [eia] Spanish Reinforcement Phase (Sept. 05)

["J.J. Young" <jjy@xxxxxxxxxxx>]

I guess the question is; does the definition of "physically possible to
invade" include what a player _could_ do in their reinforcement phase, or
not ?  If it does, then Danny is perfectly justified in doing what he's done
(i.e., he's under no compunction to actually invade), and if not, then he
shouldn't have been able to declare war in the first place, and it must be
undone.  We should decide this definition as a group.

Personally, I think it makes more sense to define the "physically possible"
at the time war is declared; in other words, only considering forces on the
map _before_ the current turn's reinforcement phase.  In this case, although
I cringe at suggesting a backtrack, Spain's declaration of war on Morocco
could not have taken place.  What do the rest of you think ?

-JJY
----- Original Message -----
From: "Kyle H" <menexenus@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx>
To: <eia@xxxxxxxxx>
Sent: Saturday, March 29, 2003 11:01 AM
Subject: Re: [eia] Spanish Reinforcement Phase (Sept. 05)


>     I have a question, though.  How does Spain plan to invade Morocco?
The
> rules say that in order to declare war on a minor country, it has to be
> physically possible for the declaring major power to enter the minor
> country.  I don't see how it is possible.  I certainly understand if you
> don't want to reveal your strategy to me, but could you please give me
some
> idea of how this is possible?
>
> kdh
>
> ----- Original Message -----
> From: "Danny Mount" <mount.23@xxxxxxx>
> To: <eia@xxxxxxxxx>
> Sent: Saturday, March 29, 2003 10:41 AM
> Subject: [eia] Spanish Reinforcement Phase (Sept. 05)
>
>
> > No visible naval changes.
> >
> > Swedish Corps is added in Viborg along with 6 inf. factors in it.
> >
> > No other visible changes.
> >
> > -DEM
> >
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