Michael Gorman on Sun, 21 Mar 2004 10:39:08 -0600 (CST)


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Re: [eia] a question about trade


At 09:06 AM 3/21/2004 -0500, you wrote:
After your second email, Mike, I'm not sure which side of the argument you
agree with.  Spain did have condition B.6. imposed on it by France.  But my
assertion is that B.6. is not the reason for the lack of trade with America
in this case, and so 12.9 does not kick in.

I see a country's submission to B.6., that is, the turning away of American
shipping, as an act of government, just like the act of imposing tariffs and
duties to collect income from trade.  When a country's capital is occupied,
it loses the ability to make those kinds of actions.  The government's
policy, whether of collecting money from trade or of turning trade away in
accordance with B.6., cannot be enforced while the capital is occupied.

So in other words, I don't picture the trading ports as being empty when the
capital is occupied.  On the contrary, the merchantmen are whooping it up
and trading like mad, because there are no officials coming around to
collect the government's share.

-JJY

Occupying the capital does not cause civil disorder.

The central government cannot make effective use of income but the local officials are all still there and Spain is in control of its ports. Collected taxes might get lost somewhere in the system of local officials but society does not fold up and go home because the capital is occupied. In your situation Britain should get trade income from all the Spanish ports since anyone can trade with them now and that clearly is not the case.

So I would say that occupying a capital does not constitute denial of trade. Occupying a capital also does not waive condition B.6 which can exist independently of that situation. I had forgotten B.6 was an issue in this situation but if it is, then it is still illegal for America to trade with Spain and that will continue to annoy Americans. So Britain would still have to roll for war with America.

There is a clear line in the game when a national government collapses and Spain is no where near that line. So it does not seem reasonable to me to now assume that the Spanish government doesn't exist within territory it still controls.

Mike


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